I know most will say that to be an anti-semite is to be anti-jewish. I prefer the definition which includes a number of other people in the Middle East who are also semites. http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Semitic Now Mr. Giuliani is doing the exact same thing that other people have been accused of doing to the Jews. http://www.guardian.co.uk/israel/Story/0,,2149385,00.html Does this not qualify as anti-semitism? x
In that definition to which you provided a link, it specifically states that the term anti-semite refers to those who hate Jews specifically, not others defined as Semites. Whether you prefer a particular definition does not make it correct.
Rudy Giuliani is fully right! He is not an anti-Semite, also because palestinians are not Semitic, their descent from Ishmael is a myth without any historical support, an invention of their nutcase pedophile prophet muhammad... .
No ii does not qualify in terms of usage. It is an incorrect usage of the term to apply it to other that being opposed to a Jewish influence in art and politics. Not that there is anything wrong with being opposed to a Jewish, French, English, Lutheran, or Islamic influence in art or politics.
