sorry i dont know how to spell the second, but anywyay in the catholic and a Good News Bible ive got here, it doesnt actually refer to the homosexual tendancies of the people in those towns as the reason for god's smite. rather, its the fact that they insisted on raping so where was the interpretation mistake made? is sodom referred to more specifically in its gay ..celebrations.. elsewhere in the bible?
This is true! The sins of Sodom and Gomorrah included not only sexual rape, but also of haughtiness, pillaging and inhospitability. It's a shame that most if not virtually all fundamentalists dont see this. http://religioustolerance.org http://www.auburn.edu/~allenkc/univart.html
Yes but it was manly homosexuality. The people were so evil they wanted to have sex with the two angels (because they appeared to look like men) Lot even offered his daughter but they refused all they wanted was the angels.
What tells you it was mainly homosexuality? Becuase there is no verse in the bible (and there are plenty about Sodom and Gomorrah) that lists homosexuality as one of the reasons for its demise. AND, was Lot not trying to whore off his virgin daughter on the town a sin? Maybe the passage was in the bible becuse THAT was the sin?? And there are plenty of verses in the bible that list the reasons for its destruction. Homosexuality was not one of them. Ezekiel 16:49-49: "This was the guilt of your sister Sodom: she and her daughters had pride, surfeit of food and prosperous ease, but did not aid the poor and needy." and more: Deuteronomy 29:22- 28 -- serving false gods; Deuteronomy 32:15-19, 21-25 and 31-33 -- apathy, sacrifice to demons, idolatry and gluttony; Isaiah 1:2-4, 9-10, 20 and 23-31 -- forsaking God, showing contempt to God, Isaiah 3:8-11, 15 -- oppression, discrimination. http://www.whosoever.org/I2sodom.html Here are a few good section from an article: "How did the lesson of Sodom become so identified with homosexual acts that the very word for one of those acts became Sodomy? The answer is in the Hebrew word: yãdhà. Yãdhà has two meanings: "to know" and "engage in coitus." Of 943 times yãdhà is used in the Old Testament, only ten times is it used to mean sexual intercourse, and all of these are heterosexual coitus. The Old Testament uses the word shãkhabh to mean homosexual acts and bestiality. Lot was a resident alien in Sodom. When Lot invited strangers into his home, the townspeople approached Lot and demanded "Bring them out unto us, that we may know them (yãdhà)." Judging from the biblical references we've just discussed, it seems the townspeople were asking to get to know the credentials and intentions of strangers in their city. The absolute sacredness of a guest was a principle well known to Lot. Lot also understood the way crowds give in to hostile acts against outsiders (see Judges 19:1- 21:25 for a similar tale of hostility to strangers.) So he protected his guests and refused to hand them over to the crowd. When the crowd insisted, he offered his two daughters as the most expedient diversion for a hostile situation." http://www.libchrist.com/other/homosexual/sodom.html So basically, when Lot says his daughter has never "known" a man he is talking about heterosexual intercourse. When the townspeople ask to "know" the strangers, they probably wanted to know who the hell they were and what they were doing there. To hide the
I beleive that homosexuality is wrong, but that none of us have the right to judge, only God knows what is in peoples hearts. My proof for my reasoning is (and this is in the context that everyone thinks S&G was the worst place ever and that it got the buisness end of God's wrath) when Jesus said that the city of Caperneum was in worse shape than Sodom, becaue they turned him away.
It goes without explaining that Sodom and Gohmorrah was destroyed for its evil ways...homosexuality being one of them. GOd makes it clear on what he thinks of homosexuality.
